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Biology Final; Spring 2015

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

A white mouse whose parents are both white produces only brown offspring when mated with a brown mouse. The white mouse is most probably ____.
a.
homozygous recessive
c.
homozygous dominant
b.
heterozygous
d.
haploid
 

 2. 

In chickens, rose comb (R) is dominant to single comb (r). A homozygous rose-combed rooster is mated with a single-combed hen. All of the chicks in the F1 generation were kept together as a group for several years. They were allowed to mate only within their own group. What is the expected phenotype of the F2 chicks?
a.
100% rose comb
b.
75% rose comb and 25% single comb
c.
100% single comb
d.
50% rose comb and 50% single comb
 

 3. 

In mink, brown fur color is dominant to silver-blue fur color. If a homozygous brown mink is mated with a silver-blue mink and 8 offspring are produced, how many would be expected to be silver-blue?
a.
0
c.
6
b.
3
d.
8
 

 4. 

Which event during meiosis leads to a reduction in chromosome number from 2n to n?
a.
Pairs of homologous chromosomes line up at the equator.
b.
DNA undergoes replication.
c.
Homologous chromosomes travel to opposite sides of the cell.
d.
Sister chromatids are pulled apart at the centromere.
 

 5. 

Crossing over would most likely occur during which stage of the cell cycle?
a.
when DNA is being replicated
b.
when homologous chromomosomes line up in pairs
c.
when centromeres are separated
d.
when cytokinesis begins
 

 6. 

Which is the best description of the events that take place during anaphase II?
a.
The replicated chromosomes become visible.
b.
Homologous chromosomes line up along the equator.
c.
Sister chromatids are separated and pulled to opposite sides of the cell.
d.
Homologous pairs are separated and pulled to opposite sides of the cell.
 

 7. 

What is the role of the spindle fibers?
a.
to join homologous chromosomes together
b.
to store nucleotides prior to DNA synthesis
c.
to initiate the formation of the nuclear membrane
d.
to move chromosomes in the cell
 

 8. 

The typical human body cell contains 46 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are found in a typical human sperm?
a.
23
c.
46
b.
45
d.
92
 

 9. 

Suppose an animal is heterozygous AaBb, and the traits are not linked. When meiosis occurs, what is the total number of possible combinations of gametes that can be made for these traits?
a.
2
c.
6
b.
4
d.
8
 

 10. 

Suppose an animal is heterozygous AaBbCc, and the traits are not linked. When meiosis occurs, what is the total number of possible combinations of gametes that can be made for these traits?
a.
3
c.
8
b.
6
d.
12
 

 11. 

During which phase of meiosis do homologous pairs of chromosomes line up next to one another along the equator?
a.
anaphase I
c.
prophase II
b.
metaphase I
d.
metaphase II
 

 12. 

Which stage of meiosis is responsible for the law of independent assortment?
a.
metaphase I
c.
telophase I
b.
prophase I
d.
metaphase II
 

 13. 

A true-breeding tall pea plant is crossed with a true-breeding short pea plant, and all the offspring are tall. What is the most likely genotype of the offspring assuming a single-gene trait?
a.
tt
c.
TT
b.
Tt
d.
TT or tt
 

 14. 

In mice, black is dominant to white color and color is determined by a single gene. Two black mice are crossed. They produce 2 black offspring and one white offspring. If the white offspring is crossed with one of its parents, what percent of the offspring are expected to be white?
a.
0
c.
50
b.
25
d.
75
 

 15. 

A heterozygous organism is best described as which of these?
a.
dominant
c.
hybrid
b.
genotype
d.
true-breeding
 

 16. 

If two heterozygous individuals are crossed, what percent of their offspring are also expected to be heterozygous?
a.
0
c.
75
b.
50
d.
100
 

 17. 

Of the following species used in agriculture, which is most likely a polyploid?
a.
cow
c.
hen
b.
goat
d.
wheat
 

 18. 

Which of the following would be least likely to happen as a result of a mutation in a person's skin cells?
a.
skin cancer
b.
reduced functioning of the skin cell
c.
no change in functioning of the skin cell
d.
the person's offspring have mutated skin
 

 19. 

Which series is arranged in order from largest to smallest in size?
a.
chromosome, nucleus, cell, DNA, nucleotide
b.
cell, nucleus, chromosome, DNA, nucleotide
c.
nucleotide, chromosome, cell, DNA, nucleus
d.
cell, nucleotide, nucleus, DNA, chromosome
 

 20. 

A DNA segment is changed from-AATTAG- to -AAATAG-. This is a ____.
a.
frameshift mutation
b.
substitution
c.
insertion
d.
deletion
 

 21. 

A DNA segment is changed from -AATTAGAAATAG- to -ATTAGAAATAG-.  This is a ____.
a.
frameshift mutation
b.
insertion
c.
inversion
d.
translation
 

 22. 

Where would a DNA substitution probably have the smallest or least effect on the organism?
a.
exon
c.
intron
b.
histone
d.
operon
 

 23. 

A particular sequence of parent DNA has four purine bases and two pyrimidine bases.  According to base-pairing rules, which of the following sequences could be formed during replication?
a.
two cytosine, two adenine, two thymine
b.
two cytosine, two adenine, two uracil
c.
two adenine, two thymine, one guanine, one cytosine
d.
two adenine, two guanine, two cytosine
 

 24. 

Which of the following sequences of processes correctly reflects the central dogma?
a.
protein synthesis, transcription, translation
b.
protein synthesis, translation, transcription
c.
transcription, translation, protein synthesis
d.
translation, transcription, protein synthesis
 

 25. 

Here are two related mRNA sequences: 5'UUUAGCGAGCAU3' and 5'UUUAGCCAUAAAAAAAA3'.  How was the second sequence formed?
a.
a tandem repeat mutation formed the second sequence
b.
processing removed an exon and added a poly-A tail to form the second sequence
c.
processing removed an intron and added a poly-A tail to form the second sequence
d.
RNA polymerase matched up several incorrect nucleotide bases to the original DNA as the second sequence formed
 

 26. 

Using DNA sequencing, you discover that a bacterium has experienced a deletion mutation that removed three nucleotides.  The bacterium appears completely unaffected in all its functions.  Where is the mostly likely location for the mutation?
a.
an exon
c.
a promoter
b.
an intron
d.
a repressor
 

 27. 

Within a decade of the introduction of a new insecticide, nearly all of the descendants of the target insects are resistant to the usual-sized dose. What is the most likely explanation for this change in susceptibility to the insecticide?
a.
Eating the insecticide caused the insects to become more resistant to it.
b.
Eating the insecticide caused the insects to become less resistant to it.
c.
The pesticide destroyed organisms that cause disease in the insects, thus allowing them to live longer.
d.
The insects developed physiological adaptations to the insecticide.
 

 28. 

Which answer best shows an animal's adaptation to the tropical rain forest?
a.
camouflage in a tree frog
b.
the long neck of a giraffe
c.
an elephant's long trunk
d.
migration of birds in winter
 

 29. 

Which combination of characteristics in a population would provide the greatest potential for evolutionary change?
a.
small population, few mutations
b.
small population, many mutations
c.
large population, few mutations
d.
large population, many mutations
 

 30. 

Which of the following is a correct statement about the relationship between natural selection and evolution?
a.
Natural selection results from evolution.
b.
Natural selection includes evolution as a part of it.
c.
Natural selection is one mechanism of evolution.
d.
Natural selection and evolution are the same thing.
 

 31. 

How do fossils demonstrate evidence of evolution?
a.
They show that ancient species share similarities with species now on Earth.
b.
They show evidence of species that are now extinct.
c.
They are the primary source of evidence of natural selection.
d.
Fossils reveal that many species have remained unchanged for millions of years.
 

 32. 

Which of the following is an accurate comparison of derived traits and ancestral traits?
a.
Derived traits result from artificial selection; ancestral traits result from natural selection.
b.
Derived traits appear in species; ancestral traits appear in genera or higher taxa.
c.
Derived traits are primitive; ancestral traits are contemporary.
d.
Derived traits are recent features; ancestral traits are more primitive features.
 

 33. 

Which of the following is the explanation of why bird wings and reptile forelegs are evidence of evolution?
a.
Similar functions point to a common ancestor.
b.
Analogous structures indicate a common ancestor.
c.
Vestigial structures point to a common ancestor.
d.
Homologous structures indicate a common ancestor.
 

 34. 

Superficially similar features molded by natural selection in very different species are classified as what kind of structures?
a.
vestigial
c.
analogous
b.
homologous
d.
comparative
 

 35. 

According to Darwin, which of the following best explains why the mara is more similar to other South American mammals than it is to the rabbit?
a.
Its genotype is similar to the South American animals.
b.
It shares amino-acid sequences with other South American animals.
c.
It shares a closer ancestor with the South American animals.
d.
Its geographic distribution indicates very little variation over time.
 

 36. 

Some features in organisms can be compared to spandrels in architecture in that, although they appear to have a function, they are really just there because of the evolution of other structures.  This analogy is used as an argument for care in identifying what?
a.
homologous structures in organisms
b.
natural selection
c.
vestigial structures in organisms
d.
traits as adaptations
 

 37. 

When allelic frequencies remain unchanged, a population is in genetic equilibrium. This statement expresses which of the following?
a.
genetic drift
b.
Hardy-Weinberg principle
c.
sympatric speciation
d.
prezygotic isolating mechanism
 

 38. 

A population diverges and becomes reproductively isolated. Which of the following is the best description of that phenomenon?
a.
speciation
c.
postzygotic isolation
b.
bottleneck
d.
sexual selection
 

 39. 

What is the term describing the process that occurs when a species evolves into a new species without a physical barrier separating populations?
a.
adaptive radiation
c.
sympatric speciation
b.
coevolution
d.
allopatric speciation
 

 40. 

If a species is suddenly introduced into a new habitat, what might occur?
a.
habitat speciation
c.
adaptive radiation
b.
coevolution
d.
selective speciation
 

 41. 

Which of the following is biochemical evidence for evolution?
a.
Embryonic human hemoglobin is different from adult human hemoglobin.
b.
Hemoglobin in humans can vary between different individuals.
c.
Human hemoglobin is more similar to chimp hemoglobin than mouse hemoglobin.
d.
Human hemoglobin is different than mouse hemoglobin.
 

 42. 

On the islands of Hawaii there are a group of about 30 species of highly variable, but closely related, species of plant called silverswords. These species appear to be related to a small group of plants in North America. What are the silverswords an example of?
a.
mimicry
c.
adaptive radiation
b.
analogous structures
d.
vestigial structures
 

 43. 

Which of the following is the correct way to write the scientific name of the Northern cardinal?
a.
cardinalis cardinalis
c.
cardinalis Cardinalis
b.
Cardinalis cardinalis
d.
Cardinalis Cardinalis
 

 44. 

Which of the following is a taxon of related phyla or divisions?
a.
class
c.
kingdom
b.
domain
d.
order
 

 45. 

Which of the following is the most general taxon?
a.
genus
c.
phylum
b.
kingdom
d.
species
 

 46. 

Which of the following lists the taxa from broadest to most specific?
a.
domain, kingdom, class, order, phylum, family, genus, species
b.
species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom, domain
c.
domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
d.
phylum, kingdom, class, family, order, genus, domain, species
 

 47. 

To which domain does the American black bear belong?
a.
Animalia
c.
Chordata
b.
Carnivora
d.
Eukarya
 

 48. 

Which of the following is an example of a morphological character used for classification of taxa?
a.
DNA analysis
b.
RNA analysis
c.
the hip structure of theropods
d.
the chromosomes of broccoli and cauliflower
 

 49. 

Which type of character is found within an entire line of descent of a group of organisms?
a.
ancestral
c.
derived
b.
biochemical
d.
morphological
 

 50. 

Which of the following Kingdoms is not included in the Domain Eukarya?
a.
Bacteria
c.
Plantae
b.
Fungi
d.
Protista
 



 
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